COPA Question Bank 2025

Computer Fundamental

1. UNIVAC is
A) Universal Automatic Computer
B) Universal Array Computer
C) Unique Automatic Computer
D) Undervalue Automatic Computer

Ans : A

2. The basic operations performed by a computer are
A) Arithmetic operation
B) Logical operation
C) Storage and relative
D) All the above

Ans : D

3. The two major types of computer chips are
A) External memory chip
B) Primary memory chip
C) Microprocessor chip
D) Both b and c

Ans : D

4. Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation computers
A) First Generation
B) Second Generation
C) Third Generation
D) Fourth Generation

Ans : D

5. The brain of any computer system is
A) ALU
B) Memory
C) CPU
D) Control unit

Ans : C

6. Chief component of first generation computer was
A) Transistors
B) Vacuum Tubes and Valves
C) Integrated Circuits
D) None of above

Ans : B

7. To produce high quality graphics (hardcopy) in color, you would want to use a/n
A) RGB monitor
B) Plotter
C) Ink-jet printer
D) Laser printer

Ans : B

8. Which of the following IC was used in third generation of computers?
A) SSI
B) MSI
C) LSI
D) Both a and b

Ans : D

9. Which of the following was a special purpose computer?
A) ABC
B) ENIAC
C) EDVAC
D) All of the above

Ans : A

10. Which of the following storage devices can store maximum amount of data?
A) Floppy Disk
B) Hard Disk
C) Compact Disk
D) Magneto Optic Disk

Ans : B

11. High density double sided floppy disks could store _____ of data
A) 1.40 MB
B) 1.44 GB
C) 1.40 GB
D) 1.44 MB

Ans : D

12. Which of the following is not an input device?
A) OCR
B) Optical scanners
C) Voice recognition device
D) COM (Computer Output to Microfilm)

Ans : D

13. When was vacuum tube invented?
A) 1900
B) 1906
C) 1910
D) 1880

Ans : B

14. Which of the following produces the best quality graphics reproduction?
A) Laser printer
B) Ink jet printer
C) Plotter
D) Dot matrix printer

Ans : C

15. Computers with 80286 microprocessor is
A) XT computer
B) AT computers
C) PS/2 computer
D) None of above

Ans : B

16. Software in computer
A) Enhances the capabilities of the hardware machine
B) Increase the speed of central processing unit
C) Both of above
D) None of above

Ans : A

17. Abacus was the first
A) electronic computer
B) mechanical computer
C) electronic calculator
D) mechanical calculator

Ans : D

18. BCD is
A) Binary Coded Decimal
B) Bit Coded Decimal
C) Binary Coded Digit
D) Bit Coded Digit

Ans : A

19. Properly arranged data is called
A) Field
B) Words
C) Information
D) File

Ans : C

20. A computer consists of
A) A central processing unit
B) A memory
C) Input and output unit
D) All of the above

Ans : D

21. John Napier invented Logarithm in
A) 1614
B) 1617
C) 1620
D) None of above

Ans : A

22. An integrated circuit is
A) A complicated circuit
B) An integrating device
C) Much costlier than a single transistor
D) Fabricated on a tiny silicon chip

Ans : D

23. Which of the following is used as a primary storage device?
A) Magnetic drum
B) Hard Disks
C) Floppy
D) All of above

Ans : A

24. A byte consists of
A) One bit
B) Four bits
C) Eight bits
D) Sixteen bits

Ans : C

25. The term gigabyte refers to
A) 1024 bytes
B) 1024 kilobytes
C) 1024 megabytes
D) 1024 gigabyte

Ans : C

Know More About Us

Microsoft Word

1. How many different positions can you set for drop cap?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6

2. How many ways you can save a document?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

3. What is the maximum number of lines you can set for lines to drop box?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 15

4. Single spacing in MS-WORD document causes ____ point line spacing?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16

5. What is the default number of lines to drop for drop cap?
(a) 3
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20

6. What is the maximum number of lines you can set for a drop cap?
(a) 3
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20

7. How many columns can you insert in a word document in maximum?
(a) 35
(b) 45
(c) 55
(d) 65

8. In a document what is the maximum number of columns that can be inserted in MS Word Table?
(a) 35
(b) 15
(c) 63
(d) 65

9. What is the maximum scale percentage available in Scale drop down box?
(a) 500
(b) 200
(c) 100
(d) 90

10. What is the maximum font size you can apply for any character?
(a) 163
(b) 1638
(c) 16038
(d) None of above

11. Word, by default, places a tab stop at every _____ mark on the ruler.
(a) .25″
(b) .5″
(c) .75″
(d) 1″

12. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?
(a) .txts
(b) .word
(c) .docs
(d) .docx

13. The file type _____ indicates the file is a Word document.
(a) .msw
(b) .wor
(c) .wrd
(d) .doc

14. Which of the following button will allow you to add, delete, or change records in your Data Source?
(a) ‘Data Source’ button
(b) ‘Edit’ button
(c) ‘Edit Data Source’ button
(d) ‘Data Editing’ button

15. How much space in minimum must be provided between columns?
(a) 0″
(b) 0.5″
(c) 1″
(d) 1.5″

16. What is the smallest width of a column?
(a) 0″
(b) 0.5″
(c) 1″
(d) 1.5″

17. By default, your document prints with:
(a) 1 inch top and bottom margins
(b) a portrait orientation
(c) 1.25 inches left and right margins
(d) all of the above

18. Word is preset to use standard 8.5-by-11-inch paper with _____ margins.
(a) 1-inch left, right, top, and bottom
(b) 1.25-inch left, right, top, and bottom
(c) 1.25-inch left and right margins and 1-inch top and bottom
(d) 1-inch left and right margins and 1.25-inch top and bottom

19. What is the default left margin in Word 2003 document?
(a) 1″
(b) 1.25″
(c) 1.5″
(d) 2″

20. What is the smallest and largest font size available in Font Size tool on formatting toolbar?
(a) 8 and 72
(b) 8 and 64
(c) 12 and 72
(d) None of above

21. What is the default font size of a new Word document based on Normal template in Word 2003?
(a) 10 pt
(b) 12 pt
(c) 14 pt
(d) None of above

22. The minimum number of rows and columns in MS Word document is
(a) 1 and 1
(b) 2 and 1
(c) 2 and 2
(d) None of above

23. In mail merge operation which of the following might represent the main document?
(a) A sales brochure
(b) A form letter
(c) A database of Names and Addresses
(d) All of above

24. Pressing F8 key for three times selects
(a) a word
(b) a sentence
(c) a paragraph
(d) entire document

25. What do you call ‘a collection of character and paragraph formatting commands’?
(a) the defaults
(b) a template
(c) a style
(d) a boilerplate

26. What is a Document Outline View?
(a) A preview in a full screen
(b) A preview with margins
(c) A View with a margins and gutter
(d) A view with a structure of heading at various levels

27. Ctrl + Z
(a) Undo the last Action
(b) Redo the last Action
(c) Add the new page
(d) Paste the contents from clipboard

28. The _____ in the Resume Wizard dialog box indicates the wizard is ready to create the document.
(a) Start panel
(b) Address panel
(c) Add/Sort Heading panel
(d) Finish panel

29. What does Ctrl + = key effect?
(a) Superscript
(b) Subscript
(c) All Caps
(d) Shadow

30. How can you make the selected character superscripted?
(a) Ctrl + =
(b) Ctrl + Shift + =
(c) Alt + Ctrl + Shift + =
(d) None of above

31. Ctrl + E is used to:
a. Align text to the left
b. Center align text
c. Align text to the right
d. Justify text

32. Ctrl + L is used to:
a. Left align text
b. Center align text
c. Right align text
d. Justify text

33. Ctrl + R is used to:
a. Left align text
b. Center align text
c. Right align text
d. Justify text

34. Ctrl + J is used to:
a. Left align text
b. Center align text
c. Right align text
d. Justify text

35. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar that provides categorized options?
a. Tool bar
b. Menu bar
c. Status bar
d. Scroll bar

36. What does the ruler help us do?
a. Set tabs
b. Set indents
c. Change page margins
d. All of the above

37. The key F7 is used to:
a. Open Find dialog box
b. Run spell check
c. Open thesaurus
d. Save the file

38. Which of the following is not available on the ruler of MS Word screen?
a. Tab stop box
b. Left Indent
c. Right Indent
d. Center Indent

39. What is the default font used in MS Word 2007?
a. Arial
b. Calibri
c. Calibri (Body)
d. Times New Roman

40. Which menu do you choose to create a header or footer?
a. Insert
b. View
c. Format
d. Tools

41. What is gutter margin?
a. Margin that is added to the left margin
b. Margin that is added to the right margin
c. Margin that is added to the binding side of page
d. Margin that is added to the outside of the page

42. To save a document with a new name, use:
a. Save
b. Save As
c. Rename
d. Ctrl + S

43. Which option is not available in Insert Table dialog box?
a. Number of columns
b. Number of rows
c. AutoFit behavior
d. Fixed column width

44. Which is a quick way to copy formatting from a selected cell to two other cells?
a. Use Ctrl + C
b. Use Format Cells
c. Use Format Painter
d. Use Paste Special

45. You can jump to the next column by:
a. Pressing Ctrl + Tab
b. Pressing Alt + Down Arrow
c. Clicking on the next cell
d. Pressing Tab

46. Which of the following is used to create a newspaper-style document?
a. Tables
b. Columns
c. Tab settings
d. Text boxes

47. What is the purpose of headers and footers in a document?
a. To enhance the appearance
b. To mark the start and end of a page
c. To include information like page numbers, date, and document title
d. To make large documents more readable

48. What is the default font size in Word 2007?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 14

49. In MS Word, what does Ctrl + Shift + > do?
a. Increase font size
b. Decrease font size
c. Grow indent
d. Move text right

50. In MS Word, what does Ctrl + Shift + < do?
a. Increase indent
b. Decrease font size
c. Cut selected text
d. Delete text

51. Which view is best for editing text?
a. Print Layout
b. Full Screen Reading
c. Draft
d. Web Layout

52. To select a single word, you can:
a. Double-click the word
b. Single click the word
c. Drag over the word
d. Press Ctrl + Click

53. To select an entire paragraph, click:
a. Three times on the paragraph
b. Double-click the paragraph
c. Press Ctrl + A
d. Click and drag

54. A red wavy underline indicates:
a. Grammatical error
b. Spelling error
c. Formatting error
d. Capitalization error

55. A green wavy underline indicates:
a. Grammatical error
b. Spelling error
c. Formatting error
d. Capitalization error

56. What does Blue wavy underline represent?
a. Grammar error
b. Spelling error
c. Contextual error
d. Synonym suggestion

57. You can break the column using:
a. Ctrl + Enter
b. Ctrl + Shift + Enter
c. Alt + Enter
d. Alt + Shift + Enter

58. Which feature is used for spelling and grammar checking?
a. Spelling & Grammar
b. AutoCorrect
c. Proofing
d. AutoFormat

59. The default line spacing in Word 2007 is:
a. Single
b. 1.15
c. 1.5
d. Double

60. Which tab contains the ‘Page Setup’ group?
a. Home
b. Insert
c. Page Layout
d. View

61. To open the ‘Find and Replace’ dialog box, press:
a. Ctrl + H
b. Ctrl + F
c. Ctrl + R
d. Ctrl + G

62. How to apply superscript to text?
a. Ctrl + =
b. Ctrl + Shift + +
c. Ctrl + Shift + =
d. Ctrl + Alt + =

63. How to apply subscript to text?
a. Ctrl + =
b. Ctrl + Shift + =
c. Ctrl + –
d. Ctrl + Alt + =

64. Which view displays the document as it will appear when printed?
a. Draft
b. Print Layout
c. Web Layout
d. Outline

65. What does Ctrl + Enter do in MS Word?
a. Adds a new line
b. Inserts a page break
c. Adds a section break
d. Inserts a column break

66. The Zoom tool is available on which toolbar?
a. Standard
b. Formatting
c. View
d. Drawing

67. What is the function of the ‘Thesaurus’ in MS Word?
a. Check spelling
b. Find synonyms
c. Translate text
d. Grammar check

68. The keyboard shortcut for Spell Check is:
a. F6
b. F7
c. F8
d. F12

69. MS Word allows which of the following types of mail merge?
a. Letters
b. Envelopes
c. Labels
d. All of the above

70. Which key combination is used to insert a line break without starting a new paragraph?
a. Shift + Enter
b. Ctrl + Enter
c. Alt + Enter
d. Tab + Enter

71. Which of the following is not a font style?
a. Bold
b. Italics
c. Regular
d. Superscript

72. What is the shortcut key to close the active document in MS Word?
a. Ctrl + F4
b. Ctrl + W
c. Ctrl + Shift + W
d. Alt + F4

73. What is the shortcut key for ‘Undo’ action in MS Word?
a. Ctrl + Z
b. Ctrl + Z
c. Ctrl + X
d. Ctrl + U

74. What is the shortcut key for ‘Redo’ action in MS Word?
a. Ctrl + Y
b. Ctrl + Y
c. Ctrl + R
d. Ctrl + Shift + Y

75. To move the insertion point to the beginning of the document, press:
a. Ctrl + Home
b. Ctrl + End
c. Home
d. Alt + Home

76. What is the function of Ctrl + B in MS Word?
a. Italic
b. Bold
c. Underline
d. Superscript

77. What is the function of Ctrl + I in MS Word?
a. Underline
b. Bold
c. Italic
d. Copy

78. What is the function of Ctrl + U in MS Word?
a. Italic
b. Underline
c. Bold
d. Undo

79. Which of the following shortcut keys is used for ‘Save As’?
a. F12
b. F12
c. Ctrl + S
d. Shift + F12

80. Which shortcut key is used to insert a hyperlink in a document?
a. Ctrl + K
b. Ctrl + H
c. Ctrl + L
d. Ctrl + J

81. Which of these is a word processor included in MS office
(a) MS Word
(b) MS Excel
(c) MS Power Point
(d) MS Paint

82. What is extension of files created in MS-Word 97-2003
(a) Txt
(b) BMP
(c) Dot
(d) DOC

83. What is extension of files created in MS-Word 2007-2015
(a) Txt
(b) XLS
(c) DOCX
(d) RTF

84. MS-Office is –
(a) Application Software
(b) System Software
(c) Operating System
(d) All of above

85. Which of these toolbars allow changing of Fonts and Their sizes?
(a) Standard
(b) Formatting
(c) Print Preview
(d) None of these

86. What is the shortcut key for new paragraph –
(a) Down Cursor Key
(b) Enter Key
(c) Shift + Enter
(d) Ctrl + Enter

87. What is shortcut key for check spelling check –
(a) F1
(b) F2
(c) F7
(d) F9

88. What is the smallest ……. & ………largest font size
(a) 8 & 72
(b) 8 & 68
(c) 6 & 72
(d) 6 & 68

89. Which menu used to change character size and typeface?
(a) View
(b) Tools
(c) Format
(d) Data

90. In Microsoft Word Shortcut Key CTRL + W is used for
(a) Open the Print dialog box
(b) Update current web page
(c) Close the current windows
(d) None of these

91. What is default lines to Drop Cap?
(a) 3
(b) 16
(c) 10
(d) 14

92. Thesaurus tool are used in MS word.
(a) Spelling Suggestions
(b) Synonyms & Antonyms
(c) Grammar options
(d) All of above

93. Which file starts MS Word in Run Dialog box ?
(a) Word
(b) MSWord
(c) Word2003
(d) Winword

94. Portrait and Landscape are –
(a) Page Orientation
(b) Paper Size
(c) Page Layout
(d) All of above

95. What is default font used in MS Word 93-2003
(a) Times New Roman
(b) Algerian
(c) Noticea Text
(d) Arial

96. What is the default size of a new word document based on Normal Template?
(a) 9 pt
(b) 12 pt
(c) 14 pt
(d) None of above

97. The mailing list is known as the………..
(a) Data Source
(b) Sheet
(c) Data Sheet
(d) Source

98. What is the shortcut key of “UNDO”
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + Z
(c) Ctrl + U
(d) Ctrl + X

99. What is CTRL + Q used for in MS Word ?
(a) To Remove Paragraph Formatting
(b) To open an existing file
(c) To delete the select text
(d) To spell check

100. To Change line height 1.5 we use shortcut key
(a) Ctrl + 1
(b) Ctrl + 2
(c) Ctrl + 3
(d) Ctrl + 5

101. We can insert a page number at –
(a) F1
(b) F2
(c) F7
(d) F9

102. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar
(a) Menu Bar
(b) Status Bar
(c) Tool Bar
(d) Scroll Bar

103. The first letter of each word comes in small case and all other letters come in a big case.
(a) Upper case
(b) Lower case
(c) Title case
(d) Toggle case

105. How many maximum lines can be set for the drop cap ?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 8

106. The shortcut key for Spelling Check
(a) F3
(b) F6
(c) F11
(d) F7

107. What is the shortcut key for Change Case
(a) F3
(b) Ctrl + F3
(c) Shift + F3
(d) Alt + F3

108. The shortcut key for “Replace”
(a) Ctrl + R
(b) Alt + R
(c) Shift + R
(d) Ctrl + H

109. The shortcut key for “Find”
(a) Ctrl + F
(b) Alt + R
(c) Shift + F
(d) Ctrl + H

110. The shortcut key for “Undo” –
(a) Ctrl + U
(b) Ctrl + Z
(c) Ctrl + Y
(d) Ctrl + X

111. The shortcut key for “Redo” –
(a) Ctrl + R
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Ctrl + X
(d) Ctrl + Y

112. The shortcut key for Change the “Font Style”
(a) Shift + Alt + F
(b) Ctrl + Shift + f
(c) Ctrl + F + S
(d) Ctrl + S

113. The shortcut key for change “Font Size” –
(a) Ctrl + Shift + P
(b) Alt + F
(c) Alt + S
(d) Ctrl + P

114. The shortcut key for “Copyright Symbol”
(a) Ctrl + C
(b) Alt + C
(c) Ctrl + Shift + C
(d) Alt + Ctrl + C

115. The shortcut key for “Superscript”
(a) Shift + S
(b) Ctrl + Shift + +
(c) Alt + S
(d) Ctrl + =

116. The shortcut key for “Subscript”
(a) Alt + Ctrl + F
(b) Shift + +
(c) Ctrl + S
(d) Ctrl + =

117. Word Warp Means –
(a) Aligning text the right margin
(b) Inserting spaces between words
(c) Moving text automatically to the next line
(d) None of the above

118. Microsoft word is a
(a) Word Processing Program
(b) Spreadsheet Program
(c) Presentation Program
(d) None of the above

119. The “zoomed maximum” up to in MS Word
(a) 100 %
(b) 200 %
(c) 500 %
(d) 400 %

120. The “zoomed minimum” up to in MS Word
(a) 30%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 15%

Know More About Us

Microsoft Excel

1. What is the extension of files created in MS-Excel 97-2003?
a. .xlx
b. .msx
c. .Dot
d. .xls

2. What is the extension of files created in MS-Excel 2007-2015?
a. Txt
b. XLS
c. XLSX
d. RTF

3. MS-Office is –
a. Application Software
b. System Software
c. Operating System
d. All of above

4. Which menu option in MS Excel has the option to “Sort the Data”?
a. Review
b. Data
c. Formula
d. Insert

5. Which is the correct formula for SUM Function in MS Excel?
a. /SUM(A1+A5)
b. =SUM(A1-A5)
c. =SUM(A1:A5)
d. +SUM(A1:A5)

6. What is the use of VLOOKUP function in MS Excel –
a. to get the max value
b. to copy a row
c. to find things in a table
d. None of these

7. Which button in MS Excel is used to calculate the sum of numbers?
a. AutoSum
b. Fill
c. Insert
d. Merge

8. What is the shortcut key for “Current Date” in Excel?
a. Ctrl + C
b. Ctrl + D
c. Alt + ;
d. Ctrl + ;

9. What is the shortcut key for “Current Time” in Excel?
a. Ctrl + Shift + :
b. Ctrl + T
c. Ctrl + D
d. Ctrl + ;

10. What is the shortcut to insert comment in MS Excel?
a. Ctrl + F6
b. Alt + F8
c. Shift + F9
d. Shift + F2

11. Which function in MS Excel counts the number of characters in a Cell?
a. Len ( )
b. Length ( )
c. Count ( )
d. LNG ( )

12. What is a shortcut to add a border to the selected cell in MS Excel?
a. Ctrl + T
b. Ctrl + B
c. Shift + B
d. Ctrl + Shift + &

13. What is the shortcut key of Hyperlink in Excel?
a. Ctrl + H
b. Ctrl + K
c. Alt + S
d. Alt + K

14. What is the shortcut key to select complete row?
a. Shift + Space
b. Ctrl + Space
c. Alt + Space
d. None of these

15. What is the shortcut key to select complete column?
a. Shift + Space
b. Ctrl + Space
c. Alt + Space
d. None of these

16. What is the intersection of a column and row on a worksheet called?
a. Row
b. Column
c. Cell
d. Address

17. MS Excel is a –
a. Word Processing Software
b. Spreadsheet Program
c. Presentation Program
d. None of these

18. The software which contains rows and columns is called –
a. Word Processing
b. Database
c. Spreadsheet
d. None of these

19. Formulas in Excel start with –
a. +
b. #
c. %
d. =

20. To return the remainder after a number is divided by a divisor in Excel
a. Round ( )
b. Mod ( )
c. Fact ( )
d. None of these

21. Hyperlinks can be:

a. Text
b. Drawing
c. Picture
d. All of the above

22. NOT, AND, OR and XOR are –
a. Relational Operator
b. Logical Operators
c. Arithmetic Operators
d. None of these

23. The shortcut key to hide entire column:
a. Ctrl + H
b. Ctrl + 0
c. Ctrl + –
d. None of these

24. Which of the following is correct?
a. = power (2^3)
b. = power (2*3)
c. = power (2,3)
d. None of these

25. What is the shortcut key to insert a new comment in a cell?
a. ALT + F2
b. Ctrl + F2
c. Shift + F2
d. None of these

26. What is the shortcut key to insert a new sheet in the current workbook?
a. Shift + F11
b. Ctrl + F11
c. Alt + F11
d. None of these

27. How many sheets are there, by default, when we create a new Excel file?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

28. Which sign is displayed when a formula error occurs in MS Excel?
a. $
b. *
c. #
d. \

29. What is the shortcut key of “AutoSum”?
a. Ctrl + =
b. Alt + =
c. Ctrl + A
d. Shift + =

30. What is the shortcut key for Insert (Row, Column)?
a. Ctrl + +
b. Ctrl + C
c. Ctrl + R
d. Ctrl + A

31. What is the shortcut key for Delete (Row, Column)?
a. Ctrl + –
b. Ctrl + R
c. Ctrl + C
d. Ctrl + D

32. The shortcut key for Hide Rows:
a. Ctrl + 9
b. Ctrl + S
c. Ctrl + H
d. Ctrl + R

33. The shortcut key for Hide Columns:
a. Ctrl + H
b. Ctrl + C
c. Ctrl + 9
d. Ctrl + 0

34. The shortcut key for Unhide Rows:
a. Ctrl + Shift + (
b. Ctrl + U
c. Ctrl + H
d. Ctrl + R

35. The shortcut key for Unhide Columns:
a. Ctrl + H
b. Ctrl + K
c. Ctrl + Shift + )
d. Ctrl + Z

36. What is the extension file for Excel 2004?

A) .xls
B) .excel
C) .xcel
D) .xcl

37. What is the extension file for Excel 2007 and above?
A) .xls
B) .excel
C) .xlsx
D) .xcl

38. Worksheet is also called an array of _____.
A) Column
B) Cells
C) Box
D) Formula

39. How are cells named in MS Excel?
A) Alphabetically
B) Numerically
C) Alphanumerically
D) Special Character

40. What is the maximum limit of rows in MS Excel 2010?
A) 1084567
B) 1048567
C) 1048576
D) 1084576

41. What is the maximum limit of columns in MS Excel 2010?
A) 16384
B) 16438
C) 16843
D) 16348

42. Which bar lies at the top of the window in Excel?
A) Status Bar
B) Ruler
C) Title Bar
D) Scroll Bar

43. How are rows numbered in MS Excel?
A) Alphabetically
B) Numerically
C) Alphanumerically
D) Special characters

44. How are columns named in MS Excel?
A) Alphabetically
B) Numerically
C) Alphanumerically
D) Special characters

45. Which tab is used to include pivot tables, charts, and hyperlinks in a spreadsheet?
A) Insert
B) Page Layout
C) Data
D) Review

46. Which tab in Excel is used for importing, querying, outlining, and subtotaling data in a worksheet’s data list?
A) Formula
B) Data
C) Review
D) Insert

47. Which tab in Excel is used for proofing, protecting, and marking up a spreadsheet?
A) Formula
B) Data
C) Review
D) View

48. Which tool in MS Office is best for organizing data and making lists?
A) Access
B) Excel
C) PowerPoint
D) Word

49. What is the file extension of Excel 2010?
A) .xls
B) .xlsb
C) .xlsm
D) .xlsx

50. How is a single element in a worksheet known in Excel?
A) Cell
B) Column
C) Range
D) Row

51. What do you mean by A3, B13:B20, C7 reference in Excel?
A) Range
B) Union
C) Formula
D) General

52. Which type of key should be combined with the Ctrl key to create a macro key in Excel?
A) Numeric
B) Alphabetic
C) Alphanumeric
D) Special characters

53. Which bar is used to display sheet information and the insertion point location in MS Excel?
A) Ruler
B) Scroll Bar
C) Status Bar
D) Title Bar

54. Which tab is used to change the display of worksheet area and the data it contains?
A) Page Layout
B) Data
C) Review
D) View

55. Which view in Excel displays the pages exactly as they appear when printed?
A) Custom View
B) Full screen View
C) Page Break View
D) Page Layout View

56. Which tab is used for creating, formatting, and editing a spreadsheet?
A) Data
B) Home
C) Insert
D) Review

57. Which function is used to count the number of cells that contain numbers, in a range?
A) Count()
B) Countif()
C) Sum()
D) Sumif()

58. Which function is used to add the values in a range?
A) Count()
B) Sum()
C) ABS()
D) Sumif()

59. Which symbol is used to execute formulas in MS Excel?
A) =
B) ‘
C) #
D) “

60. Where does the result display when a formula is entered in Excel?
A) Current Cell
B) Next Cell
C) Previous Cell
D) Formula Bar

61. Which function in Excel is used to find the biggest value in a range?
A) Ceiling
B) DMAX
C) LEN
D) MAX

62. Which one of the following is a text function in MS Excel?
A) MID()
B) NOW()
C) COUNT()
D) SIGN

63. Which one of the following is a ‘Date & Time’ function in Excel?
A) FIND()
B) MOD()
C) NOW()
D) MID()

64. Which function is used to find the middle number in a range?
A) MEDIAN()
B) MID()
C) TRIM()
D) MODE()

65. What is the purpose of the ‘Tab’ key in MS Excel?
A) Moves cell pointer to the previous column
B) Moves cell pointer to the next column
C) Moves cell pointer to the previous row
D) Moves cell pointer to the next row

66. What is the purpose of the ‘Enter Key’ in MS Excel?
A) Moves cell pointer to the previous column
B) Moves cell pointer to the next column
C) Moves cell pointer to the previous row
D) Moves cell pointer to the next row

67. Which function key is used to open the ‘Go To’ dialogue box in MS Excel?
A) F2
B) F5
C) F7
D) F11

68. Which option in MS Excel is used to display the rows that meet certain conditions?
A) Find
B) Filter
C) Format
D) Sort

69. Which option in Excel is used to rearrange the rows based on the content of a particular column?
A) Find
B) Filter
C) Sort
D) Format

70. Microsoft Excel is a powerful ____
A) Word processing package
B) Spreadsheet package
C) Communication software package
D) DBMS Package

71. Which one of the following is a ‘no argument’ function?
A) Now()
B) Lower()
C) Max()
D) IF()

72. Which key is used to move the insertion point to the beginning of the current sheet?
A) Page Up
B) Home
C) Ctrl + Page Up
D) Ctrl + Home

73. The intersection of a row and column in MS Excel is called _______.
A) Spreadsheet
B) Workbook
C) Document
D) Cell

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Microsoft PowerPoint

1. Which contains miniature representation of slides?
A) Slides
B) Handout
C) Template
D) Slide Master

2. Which button is used to add instant animation to the presentation and helps with an interactive presentation?
A) Add button
B) Start button
C) Insert button
D) Action button

3. Which tool allows the user to select a different layout for a slide?
A) Apply design
B) Bullets
C) New slide
D) Slide Layout

4. Which shortcut key is used to create a new presentation in PowerPoint?
A) Ctrl + P
B) Ctrl + N
C) Ctrl + M
D) Ctrl + X

5. How many panes are there in the backstage view in PowerPoint 2010?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9

6. Which menu is used to apply various effects to the text in a slide?
A) Animation
B) Design
C) Transitions
D) Slide show

7. Which menu is used to apply various visual effects to the slide in PowerPoint?
A) Animation
B) Design
C) Slide show
D) Transitions

8. Which menu is used to select a predefined chart style?
A) Animation
B) Design
C) Slide show
D) Transitions

9. Which template specifies common design elements in all slides in the presentation?
A) Fax template
B) User template
C) Data template
D) Master template

10. Which shortcut key is used to invoke the thesaurus dialog box in PowerPoint?
A) Shift + F7
B) Ctrl + F7
C) Alt + F7
D) Ctrl + Alt + F7

11. Which option is used to create a presentation automatically in PowerPoint?
A) Template
B) Blank Presentation
C) Auto content wizard
D) Standard test bar

12. Which holder holds text, title, and pictures in PowerPoint?
A) Content Holder
B) Image Holder
C) Place Holder
D) Slide Holder

13. Which option is used to insert the related hints of a slide?
A) Note Master
B) Presentation Master
C) Slide Master
D) Hints Master

14. Which combination of keys is used to select all slides from the current slide to the first slide?
A) Alt + Home
B) Ctrl + Home
C) Shift + Home
D) Tab + Home

15. Which option is used to display the selected slides only for the presentation?
A) From Beginning
B) From current slide
C) Broadcast slide show
D) Custom slide show

16. Which one of the following is an effect option in PowerPoint presentation?
A) Diamond
B) Fade
C) Push
D) Reveal

17. Which combination of keys is used to show the laser pointer during the slide show?
A) Alt + left mouse button
B) Alt + right mouse button
C) Ctrl + left mouse button
D) Ctrl + right mouse button

18. Which item contains text, graphics, charts, sound, video, etc., in PowerPoint?
A) Slides
B) Folder
C) Handouts
D) Desktop screen

19. What type of software program is PowerPoint?
A) Word Processor
B) Spreadsheet
C) Presentation Graphics
D) Database Management

20. Which key is used to stop a PowerPoint presentation?
A) ESC
B) Tab
C) Ctrl
D) Enter

21. Which function key is used to run a PowerPoint presentation?
A) F3
B) F5
C) F7
D) F9

22. Which shortcut key is used to create/Add a new slide in PowerPoint?
A) Ctrl + C
B) Ctrl + N
C) Ctrl + M
D) Ctrl + S

23. Which one of the following is the extension of PowerPoint 2010 presentation file?
A) .docx
B) .pptx
C) .xlsx
D) .accdb

24. PowerPoint presentation may be exported to ______.
A) Portable Document Format (PDF)
B) Video file (through File > Save & send)
C) .jpg
D) All of these

25. In Microsoft PowerPoint, two kinds of sound effects files that can be added to the presentation are:
A) .wav files and .mid files
B) .wav files and .mod files
C) .wav files and .jpg files
D) .jpg files and .gif files

26. If you have a PowerPoint show you created and want to send it via email to another teacher, you can add the show to your email message as a (an):
A) Inclusion
B) Attachment
C) Reply
D) Forward

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MySQL

MySQL is freely available and is open source
a) True
b) False
c) Not sure
d) Private
What represents a ‘tuple’ in a relational database?
a) Table
b) Row
c) Column
d) Object
How is communication established with MySQL?
a) SQL
b) Network calls
c) A programming language like C++
d) APIs
The MySQL server used in its client/server architecture is _______________
a) mysqla
b) mysqlb
c) mysqlc
d) mysqld
Which of the following clauses is used to display information that matches a given pattern?
a) LIKE
b) WHERE
c) IS
d) SAME
What command is used to delete all records from a table without deleting the table itself?
a) TRUNCATE
b) DROP
c) DELETE
d) REMOVE
Which of the following SQL statements is used to fetch data from a database?
a) SELECT
b) FETCH
c) GET
d) RETRIEVE
Which SQL clause is used to sort the result set?
a) ORDER BY
b) SORT
c) GROUP BY
d) ARRANGE
Which of the following is used to create a new database in MySQL?
a) CREATE DATABASE
b) NEW DATABASE
c) MAKE DATABASE
d) ADD DATABASE
Which of the following is the correct way to use the SELECT statement to retrieve data from the “students” table where the student’s name is “John”?
a) SELECT * FROM students WHERE name = ‘John’;
b) SELECT * FROM students WHERE name = ‘John’
c) SELECT name FROM students WHERE name = ‘John’;
d) SELECT students WHERE name = ‘John’;
Which of the following statements is true about indexes in MySQL?
a) Indexes are automatically created by MySQL.
b) Indexes help improve the performance of queries.
c) Indexes reduce the space used by the database.
d) Indexes help improve the performance of queries.
Which of the following is used to retrieve a specific range of rows in MySQL?
a) LIMIT
b) RANGE
c) FETCH
d) RESTRICT
What does the SELECT DISTINCT statement do in SQL?
a) Retrieves only one record from the database.
b) Retrieves only unique records.
c) Sorts the records in ascending order.
d) Limits the number of records returned.
Which of the following MySQL data types is used to store a variable-length string?
a) VARCHAR
b) TEXT
c) CHAR
d) BLOB
Which SQL command is used to modify the existing data in a table?
a) UPDATE
b) MODIFY
c) CHANGE
d) ALTER
Which of the following is true about the SQL INSERT INTO statement?
a) It is used to retrieve records from a table.
b) It is used to delete records from a table.
c) It is used to add new records to a table.
d) It is used to modify existing records in a table.
Which of the following SQL clauses is used to combine rows from two or more tables based on a related column?
a) UNION
b) JOIN
c) COMBINE
d) MERGE
What is the purpose of the WHERE clause in SQL?
a) To sort the records
b) To filter the records based on a condition.
c) To group the records
d) To order the records
What command is used to modify the structure of an existing database table?
a) ALTER TABLE
b) MODIFY TABLE
c) CHANGE TABLE
d) UPDATE TABLE
What does the SQL SELECT statement return?
a) The entire database
b) A table
c) A result set based on the query.
d) A single record

Which SQL keyword is used to retrieve records from multiple tables?
a) JOIN
b) COMBINE
c) UNION
d) MERGE
Which of the following is the correct way to add a primary key to an existing table in MySQL?
a) ALTER TABLE table_name ADD PRIMARY KEY (column_name);
b) ALTER TABLE table_name ADD PRIMARY KEY (column_name);
c) MODIFY TABLE table_name ADD PRIMARY KEY (column_name);
d) CHANGE TABLE table_name ADD PRIMARY KEY (column_name);
Which function is used to count the number of rows in a table?
a) COUNT()
b) SUM()
c) AVG()
d) ROWS()
Which SQL clause is used to remove duplicate rows from the result set?
a) DISTINCT
b) UNIQUE
c) DIFFERENT
d) NO_DUPLICATES
Which of the following operators is used to search for a specified pattern in a column?
a) LIKE
b) IN
c) BETWEEN
d) EQUALS
Which of the following statements is used to delete a table from a database in MySQL?
a) DROP TABLE
b) DELETE TABLE
c) REMOVE TABLE
d) CLEAR TABLE
Which keyword is used to sort the result set in descending order in SQL?
a) DESC
b) SORT DESC
c) ORDER DESC
d) REVERSE
Which of the following SQL functions is used to return the maximum value in a column?
a) MIN()
b) MAX()
c) AVG()
d) SUM()
Which of the following commands is used to create an index on a table in MySQL?
a) CREATE INDEX
b) ADD INDEX
c) NEW INDEX
d) MAKE INDEX
Which SQL clause is used to group rows that have the same values in specified columns?
a) GROUP BY
b) ORDER BY
c) SORT BY
d) AGGREGATE
Which of the following statements is used to update data in a table?
a) UPDATE
b) MODIFY
c) CHANGE
d) ALTER
Which operator is used to test for NULL values in SQL?
a) IS NULL
b) NULL TEST
c) IS EMPTY
d) NULL CHECK
Which of the following is used to display the current date and time in MySQL?
a) NOW()
b) GETDATE()
c) CURDATE()
d) CURRENT_DATE()
Which SQL statement is used to add a new row to a table?
a) INSERT INTO
b) ADD INTO
c) INSERT VALUES
d) NEW RECORD
Which of the following is used to set a condition to limit the rows returned in a SQL query?
a) WHERE
b) HAVING
c) IF
d) LIMIT
Which of the following is used to remove a column from an existing table?
a) ALTER TABLE table_name DROP COLUMN column_name;
b) DELETE COLUMN column_name;
c) REMOVE COLUMN column_name;
d) DROP COLUMN column_name FROM table_name;
Which function is used to get the length of a string in SQL?
a) LENGTH()
b) STRLEN()
c) CHAR_LENGTH()
d) SIZE()
Which keyword is used to retrieve data from two or more tables in SQL?
a) JOIN
b) UNION
c) COMBINE
d) INTERSECT
Which SQL clause is used to specify the sorting order of records?
a) ORDER BY
b) SORT BY
c) GROUP BY
d) ARRANGE BY
Which of the following is the correct way to select only unique values in a column?
a) SELECT DISTINCT column_name FROM table_name;
b) SELECT UNIQUE column_name FROM table_name;
c) SELECT DISTINCT column_name FROM table_name;
d) SELECT DISTINCT FROM table_name column_name;

Which SQL keyword is used to sort the result set in ascending order?
a) ASC
b) DESC
c) SORT
d) ORDER
What does the SQL statement SELECT COUNT(*) FROM table_name; do?
a) It selects all columns from the table.
b) It counts the number of rows in the table.
c) It counts the distinct rows in the table.
d) It counts the total number of columns in the table.
Which SQL clause is used to filter records after grouping them?
a) HAVING
b) WHERE
c) GROUP
d) FILTER
Which of the following is used to combine the results of two SELECT statements in SQL?
a) UNION
b) JOIN
c) INTERSECT
d) COMBINE
Which keyword is used to limit the number of rows returned in a SQL query?
a) LIMIT
b) TOP
c) ROWS
d) RESTRICT
Which of the following SQL statements is used to remove a row from a table?
a) DELETE
b) DROP
c) REMOVE
d) TRUNCATE
Which SQL clause is used to specify the column in which you want to perform an aggregate function?
a) GROUP BY
b) ORDER BY
c) HAVING
d) SELECT
Which SQL statement is used to change an existing column in a table?
a) ALTER TABLE
b) MODIFY COLUMN
c) CHANGE COLUMN
d) UPDATE COLUMN
Which SQL function is used to return the current date in MySQL?
a) CURDATE()
b) NOW()
c) GETDATE()
d) CURRENT_DATE()
Which clause is used to retrieve data from multiple tables based on a relationship between them?
a) JOIN
b) UNION
c) INTERSECT
d) MERGE
Which SQL keyword is used to find records that match a specific pattern?
a) MATCH
b) LIKE
c) CONTAINS
d) EQUALS
Which statement is used to modify data in a table?
a) UPDATE
b) MODIFY
c) CHANGE
d) ALTER
Which SQL keyword is used to return only distinct (unique) values in a query?
a) DISTINCT
b) UNIQUE
c) NO_DUPLICATES
d) DIFFERENT
Which of the following SQL functions is used to find the average value of a column?
a) SUM()
b) AVG()
c) COUNT()
d) MAX()
Which SQL clause is used to define the condition for the rows to be included in a result set?
a) WHERE
b) HAVING
c) GROUP BY
d) FILTER
What does the ORDER BY clause do in SQL?
a) Sorts the result set in ascending or descending order.
b) Limits the number of rows.
c) Groups the result set.
d) Filters the records based on a condition.
Which function returns the number of characters in a string?
a) LENGTH()
b) COUNT()
c) CHAR_LENGTH()
d) SIZE()
Which SQL function is used to concatenate two or more strings in MySQL?
a) CONCAT()
b) MERGE()
c) JOIN()
d) COMBINE()
Which SQL command is used to remove all the rows from a table without deleting the table itself?
a) TRUNCATE TABLE
b) DELETE
c) DROP TABLE
d) REMOVE
Which operator is used to find a range of values in a SQL query?
a) BETWEEN
b) IN
c) LIKE
d) RANGE

1. Which SQL clause is used to group rows that have the same values into summary rows?
  a) GROUP BY
  b) ORDER BY
  c) HAVING
  d) SELECT
2. Which of the following SQL statements is used to add a new row to a table?
  a) INSERT INTO
  b) ADD ROW
  c) UPDATE
  d) ADD RECORD
3. Which SQL keyword is used to specify the column for sorting in descending order?
  a) DESC
  b) ASC
  c) ORDER
  d) SORT
4. Which SQL statement is used to remove a table from a database?
  a) DROP TABLE
  b) DELETE TABLE
  c) REMOVE TABLE
  d) TRUNCATE TABLE
5. Which of the following SQL commands is used to change the structure of an existing table?
  a) ALTER TABLE
  b) MODIFY TABLE
  c) CHANGE TABLE
  d) UPDATE TABLE
6. What is the default sort order used by the ORDER BY clause in SQL?
  a) Ascending (ASC)
  b) Descending (DESC)
  c) Random
  d) None
7. Which function in SQL is used to return the highest value in a column?
  a) MAX()
  b) MIN()
  c) SUM()
  d) AVG()
8. Which operator is used in SQL to combine the results of two SELECT statements?
  a) JOIN
  b) UNION
  c) INTERSECT
  d) COMBINE
9. What does the HAVING clause do in SQL?
  a) Filters records after grouping.
  b) Filters records before grouping.
  c) Specifies the sort order of results.
  d) Limits the number of rows returned.
10. Which keyword is used in SQL to return the number of rows affected by a query?
  a) ROWCOUNT
  b) COUNT
  c) NUMROWS
  d) TOTAL
11. Which SQL function is used to find the minimum value in a column?
  a) MIN()
  b) MAX()
  c) AVG()
  d) SUM()
12. Which SQL clause is used to specify the pattern to search for in a string?
  a) MATCH
  b) LIKE
  c) CONTAINS
  d) EQUALS
13. Which operator is used to filter the records where a column’s value is between two values in SQL?
  a) IN
  b) BETWEEN
  c) LIKE
  d) MATCH
14. Which statement is used to combine data from two or more tables in SQL based on a related column?
  a) JOIN
  b) UNION
  c) INTERSECT
  d) MERGE
15. Which SQL statement is used to retrieve the current system date and time?
  a) NOW()
  b) CURRENT_TIMESTAMP
  c) GETDATE()
  d) SYS_DATE()
16. Which SQL command is used to remove all rows from a table and reset the table to its empty state without removing the table itself?
  a) TRUNCATE
  b) DELETE
  c) REMOVE
  d) RESET
17. Which SQL operator is used to test for NULL values?
  a) IS NULL
  b) = NULL
  c) IS EMPTY
  d) NULL TEST
18. Which SQL function is used to find the total sum of a column’s values?
  a) COUNT()
  b) SUM()
  c) AVG()
  d) MAX()
19. Which clause is used to define conditions for rows to be included in a SQL query’s result set?
  a) WHERE
  b) HAVING
  c) FILTER
  d) GROUP BY
20. Which SQL function is used to combine the result of two or more strings?
  a) JOIN()
  b) CONCAT()
  c) COMBINE()
  d) UNION()

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Computer Network

Which layer in OSI model performs network routing, flow control, and error control function?
A) Network layer
B) Session layer
C) Physical layer
D) Data link layer
What is the full form of IP?
A) Internet protect
B) Intranet protocol
C) Internet protocol
D) International protocol
What is the full form of TCP?
A) Test Control Protocol
B) Transfer Control Protocol
C) Transport Control Protocol
D) Transmission Control Protocol
Which layer is the layer 2 in OSI network model?
A) Session layer
B) Physical layer
C) Data link layer
D) Transport layer
Which layer is the layer 4 in OSI model?
A) Session layer
B) Network layer
C) Data link layer
D) Transport layer
Which is the 6th layer in OSI communication model?
A) Session layer
B) Network layer
C) Application layer
D) Presentation layer
What is the abbreviation of OSI?
A) Open Source Internet
B) Open System Interaction
C) Open Source Interconnection
D) Open System Interconnection
What is the full form of EFT?
A) Electronic Form Transfer
B) Electronic Fund Transfer
C) Electronic Field Transfer
D) Electronic Format Transfer
Which is an example for WAN?
A) Ethernet
B) Home network
C) Campus network
D) Bluetooth network
What is the full form of ADSL?
A) Asymmetrical Digital System Line
B) Automatic Digital Subscriber Line
C) Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line
D) Asynchronous Digital Subscriber Line
Which is the layer 3 in OSI model?
A) Network layer
B) Session layer
C) Physical layer
D) Data link layer
Which is a reference tool for understanding data communication between any two network systems?
A) LAN
B) WAN
C) ISO model
D) OSI model
What is called the interconnected computer systems located at different places?
A) Internet
B) Computer layout
C) Computer network
D) Connectivity of computer
Which topology combines characteristics of linear bus and star topologies?
A) Bus
B) Star
C) Tree
D) Mesh
How many pairs of wires are contained in category 5 UTP cable?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
What is the maximum speed supported by category 5 UTP cable?
A) 1mbps
B) 10mbps
C) 100mbps
D) 1000mbps
The address 2001:db8:a0b:12f0::1 is formatted in _____?
A) IPV0
B) IPV2
C) IPV4
D) IPV6
Which device is installed in a subscriber’s telephone line to allow both ADSL and regular voice (telephone) services to be used at the same time?
A) Hub
B) Switch
C) MODEM
D) Micro filter
Which layer of OSI Model transfers data between network entities?
A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 3
D) Layer 4
Which device connects multiple network segments along with the data link layer?
A) Hub
B) Bridge
C) Router
D) Switch

Which device is used to amplify or regenerate digital signals received while sending them from one port of a network into another?
A) Hub
B) Bridge
C) Switch
D) Repeater
Which device modulates analog signal to encode digital information and demodulates carrier signal to decode the transmitted information over the telephone network?
A) Hub
B) Bridge
C) Switch
D) MODEM
Which device is used to connect one network with another network that uses different protocols?
A) Hub
B) Router
C) Switch
D) Gateway
Which device forwards data packets between computer networks?
A) Hub
B) Router
C) Switch
D) Gateway
What is the speed of standard 10 base T cable?
A) 1 mbps
B) 10 mbps
C) 100 kbps
D) 100 mbps
Which type of cable is used in 10 base-FL cable standard?
A) UTP
B) STP
C) Co-axial
D) Fibre optic
What is the speed of 100BASE-TX cable?
A) 1 mbps
B) 10 mbps
C) 100 kbps
D) 100 mbps
Which is the standard connector for category-5, unshielded twisted pair cabling?
A) RJ11
B) RJ14
C) RJ25
D) RJ45
How many pairs of wires are there in category 1 UTP cables?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Which is an application layer of internet standard protocol used by local e-mail clients to retrieve e-mail from a remote server over a TCP/IP connection?
A) IP
B) FTP
C) UDP
D) POP
Which layer in OSI model provides transfer of data between end users?
A) Session layer
B) Network layer
C) Data link layer
D) Transport layer
What is the purpose of the last three layers in OSI model?
A) Common application services
B) Data presentation within the end-user system
C) Passing traffic through the network to an end system
D) Manage the dialogue between end user application process
Which layers of OSI model does the router operate?
A) Layer 2
B) Layer 3
C) Layer 6
D) Layer 7
Which layer of OSI network model does repeater work?
A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 3
D) Layer 4
Which is a standard network protocol used to transfer files from one host or to another host over a TCP-based network, such as the internet?
A) FTP
B) TCP
C) UDP
D) SMTP

1. Which is a network protocol used on the internet or LAN to provide a bi-directional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection?
  A) FTP
  B) TCP
  C) UDP
  D) Telnet
2. NFC stands for________
  A) Near field communication
  B) New field communication
  C) Near firm communication
  D) Near Field Camera
3. VPN stands for________.
  A) Vita power nation
  B) Virtual private network
  C) Very powerful network
  D) Very powerful nation
4. Father of networking ________
  A) Ray Noorda
  B) Jef Bejos
  C) Stan Lee
  D) Tim Berners-Lee
5. When data transfer is only in one direction, it is called ______.
  A) Half duplex
  B) Simplex
  C) Full duplex
  D) Communication
6. Bus topology is also called __________.
  A) Line topology
  B) Linear topology
  C) Star topology
  D) Both A and B
7. Which topology is used in LAN?
  A) Bus/Horizontal Topology
  B) Hybrid
8. In computer network, the central computer is called ______.
  A) Server
  B) Router
9. Each IP Packet must contain __________
  A) Source and Destination address
  B) Destination Address only
10. Which of the following cables transmits messages in the form of light waves?
  A) STP cable
  B) UTP cable
  C) Co-axial cable
  D) Optical fibre cable
11. The systematic design (like radial, ring, etc.) of connecting computers in a network is called network _______.
  A) Topology
  B) Protocol
  C) Firewall
  D) Antivirus
12. WLAN stands for______ .
  A) Wireless Local Area Network
  B) Wired Local Area Network
  C) Wireless Local Area Number
  D) Wireless Local Arithmetic Network
13. The device which repeats a signal on all lines except the incoming one is called _______.
  A) Hub
  B) Switch
  C) MODEM
  D) Router
14. Bluetooth signals have a range of ________.
  A) 1m
  B) 5m
  C) 10m
  D) 100m
15. W3C in networking stands for ______.
  A) World Wide Winter Consortium
  B) World Wide Web Contest
  C) World White Web Consortium
  D) World Wide Web Consortium
16. The TCP/IP protocol which permits sharing of large files over the Internet is called ______ .
  A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
  B) Hyper Text Transmission Protocol (HTTP)
  C) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
  D) Network Time Protocol (NTP)

Know More About Us

HTML

1. HTML is what type of language?

A) Scripting language
B) Markup language
C) Programming language
D) Network protocol

2. What is the first tag in an HTML document?
A) <html>
B) <body>
C) <head>
D) <title>

3. Which HTML tag inserts a line horizontally in a page?
A) <line>
B) <break>
C) <hr>
D) <tr>

4. What are the two main parts available in an HTML document?
A) Title and Body
B) Head and Title
C) Head and Body
D) Head and Document

5. Which character in HTML is used to indicate an end tag?
A) \
B) /
C) !
D) <#

6. Which symbols start with HTML comments?
A) <!--
B) </
C) <#
D) <\

7. Which attribute is used with <td> tag to merge two cells horizontally?
A) Colspan = 2
B) Rowspan = 2
C) Mergerows
D) Mergecols

8. Which tag creates a checkbox for a form in HTML?
A) <checkbox>
B) <input box>
C) <input = check box>
D) <input type="checkbox">

9. Which HTML tag is used to add a row in a table?
A) <tr> and </tr>
B) <td> and </td>
C) <table> and </table>
D) <th> and </th>

10. Which HTML tag is used to divide a row into data cells?
A) <tr> and <th>
B) <table> and <tr>
C) <tr> and <title>
D) <tr> and <td>

11. Which is the correct syntax for adding alternate text for an image, if the image cannot be displayed?
A) <img src="boat.gif" alt="big boat">
B) <img src="boat.gif" alt text="big boat"/>
C) <img src="boat.gif" alternate="big boat"/>
D) <img src="boat.gif" alternate text="big boat"/>

12. Which is the correct H1 tag for right alignment?
A) <h1 align="right">This is heading</h1>
B) <h1 align="left">This is heading</h1>
C) <h1 right>This is heading</h1>
D) <h1 align=right>This is heading

13. What is the correct syntax for making a hyperlink?
A) <http:// “https://www.bharatskills.in”>
B) <url = “https://www.bharatskills.in”>heetson
C) <a href="https://www.bharatskills.in">heetson</a>
D) <a ref="https://www.bharatskills.in">heetosn

14. Which is the correct tag for adding iframe in HTML?
A) <iframe https://www.bharatskills.in>
B) <iframe ="https://www.bharatskills.in">
C) <iframe src="https://www.bharatskills.in">
D) <iframe href="https://www.bharatskills.in">

15. What is the correct HTML tag for adding a background color?
A) <background>
B) <body bgcolor="yellow">
C) <bgcolor>
D) <color>

16. How do you add a link which will allow the visitor to send an email from the page?
A) <a href="mailto:youraddress">Send Email</a>
B) <a href="sendmailtoyour address">
C) <a="mailto">
D) <href="mailto">

17. What will happen if the background image is smaller than the screen?
A) It will be stretched
B) It will leave a blank space at the bottom of the page
C) It will leave a blank space at the top of the page
D) It will be repeated

18. Which is the correct HTML tag for making a text input field?
A) <text>
B) <input type="text">
C) <textfield>
D) <input text>

19. Which is the correct HTML tag for creating a password field?
A) <password>
B) <input password>
C) <input type="password">
D) <pass>

20. What is the correct HTML code for inserting a background image?
A) <body background="image.jpg">
B) <body = "image.jpg">
C) <background = "image.jpg">
D) <bg image="image.jpg">

21. Which option will match when making a bulleted list?
A) Square, disc, polygon
B) Triangle, disc, circle
C) Triangle, square, circle
D) Disc, circle, square

22. What is the meaning of increasing the cell padding?
A) Increase the thickness of the table border
B) Increase the space between cells
C) Increase the distance between cell and content
D) Increase the number of cells

23. Which property of cells will show how many rows a cell should span?
A) Colspan = 5
B) Rowspan = 5
C) Cellspan = 5
D) Span = 5

24. Which web language gives more control over the HTML elements and allows them to change at any time without returning to the Web server?
A) BML
B) XML
C) HTML
D) DHTML

25. What is the use of forms in HTML?
A) To display a table
B) To display a list
C) To send the data to the server
D) To display email contents

26. The latest HTML standard is:
A) XML
B) SGML
C) HTML 4.0
D) HTML 5.0

27. “.htm or .html” is the extension of ______.
A) Web page source text
B) Image
C) Video
D) PC application

28. HTML tags are surrounded by which type of brackets?
A) Curly
B) Round
C) Square
D) Angle

29. The HTML tags are ______.
A) In lowercase
B) In uppercase
C) Case sensitive
D) Not case sensitive

30. Which tag is used to display a numbered list?
A) <ul>
B) <ol>
C) <li>
D) <list>

31. Which tag is used to display a bulleted list?
A) <ul>
B) <ol>
C) <li>
D) <list>

32. Which tag is used to define the list item in HTML?
A) <ol>
B) <ul>
C) <li>
D) <item>

33. What is the correct HTML tag for the largest heading?
A) <head>
B) <h6>
C) <h1>
D) <heading>

34. Which tag is used to define an image in HTML?
A) <picture>
B) <img>
C) <image>
D) <src>

35. What does the <br> tag do in HTML?
A) Makes text bold
B) Inserts a paragraph
C) Inserts a line break
D) Makes text italic

36. Which tag is used to make text italic in HTML?
A) <b>
B) <i>
C) <it>
D) <italic>

37. Which tag is used to make text bold in HTML?
A) <b>
B) <stronger>
C) <bold>
D) <strongest>

38. What is the correct HTML element for inserting a line break?
A) <break>
B) <br>
C) <lb>
D) <line>

39. The <head> section of an HTML document contains:
A) Content of the web page
B) Metadata and title
C) Graphics
D) Tables

40. The <title> tag in HTML is used for:
A) Main content heading
B) Displaying title in browser tab
C) Creating headings
D) Adding captions to images

41. Which tag is used to define a hyperlink in HTML?
A) <link>
B) <href>
C) <a>
D) <hyper>

42. Which attribute is used to open a link in a new tab/window?
A) new
B) target=”_blank”
C) open
D) tab

43. Which HTML tag is used for a drop-down list?
A) <input type="dropdown">
B) <select>
C) <dropdown>
D) <option>

44. Which tag is used to define options in a drop-down list?
A) <select>
B) <option>
C) <input>
D) <list>

45. Which HTML attribute specifies an alternate text for an image, if the image cannot be displayed?
A) title
B) alt
C) src
D) name

46. The <marquee> tag in HTML is used for:
A) Displaying images
B) Scrolling text or image
C) Creating buttons
D) Adding forms

47. The <fieldset> tag is used for:
A) Adding a form button
B) Selecting options
C) Grouping related elements in a form
D) Adding a search field

48. Which tag is used to create a dropdown list of options in a form?
A) <input>
B) <option>
C) <select>
D) <list>

49. Which tag is used to define a table header?
A) <td>
B) <tr>
C) <th>
D) <thead>

50. Which tag is used to define a table row?
A) <td>
B) <tr>
C) <th>
D) <table>

51. Which tag is used to define a table data/cell?
A) <tr>
B) <td>
C) <table>
D) <th>

52. Which tag is used to create a table in HTML?
A) <tr>
B) <td>
C) <table>
D) <tbody>

53. Which HTML tag is used for the largest size of text?
A) <h3>
B) <h2>
C) <h1>
D) <font size="7">

54. What is the default alignment of content in a table cell?
A) Left
B) Right
C) Center
D) Justify

55. Which tag is used to create a dropdown menu?
A) <menu>
B) <list>
C) <select>
D) <dropdown>

56. What is the correct syntax to include an external CSS file in HTML?
A) <css src="style.css">
B) <style src="style.css">
**C) <link rel="stylesheet" href="style.css"> ** D) style.css`

57. What is the purpose of the <meta> tag in HTML?
A) Create a heading
B) Display content
C) Provide metadata about the document
D) Add links

58. Which tag is used to create an unordered list in HTML?
A) <ul>
B) <ol>
C) <li>
D) <list>

59. Which HTML tag is used to define internal style sheet?
A) <style src="style.css">
B) <style>
C) <css>
D) <link>

60. Which input type defines a button in HTML forms?
A) <input type="text">
B) <input type="checkbox">
**C) <input type="button"> ** D) `

61. Which HTML attribute is used to define inline styles?
A) font
B) style
C) class
D) styles

62. Which attribute is used to uniquely identify HTML elements?
A) name
B) class
C) id
D) tag

63. Which tag is used to define a section in HTML5?
A) <div>
B) <block>
C) <section>
D) <part>

64. Which tag is used to create an audio file in HTML5?
A) <sound>
B) <media>
C) <audio>
D) <mp3>

65. Which tag is used to play a video in HTML5?
A) <media>
B) <movie>
C) <video>
D) <mp4>

66. The tag <em> is used to:
A) Make text bold
B) Emphasize the text
C) Underline the text
D) Strike the text

67. Which tag is used to display a tooltip in HTML?
A) <title>
B) <alt>
C) title attribute inside a tag
D) <tooltip>

68. Which HTML element is used to define navigation links?
A) <link>
B) <navigate>
C) <nav>
D) <menu>

69. Which tag is used to group block-elements and format them with CSS?
A) <span>
B) <div>
C) <group>
D) <section>

70. Which HTML tag is used to define emphasized text?
A) <strong>
B) <em>
C) <b>
D) <italic>

71. What does the <strong> tag do?
A) Italicize the text
B) Make text bold with strong importance
C) Underline the text
D) Change the font size

72. Which tag is used to define inline text formatting?
A) <div>
B) <span>
C) <p>
D) <section>

73. The <hr> tag is used to:
A) Draw a box
B) Insert a horizontal line
C) Create a break in a paragraph
D) Create space between images

74. Which tag is used to define a paragraph in HTML?
A) <text>
B) <p>
C) <para>
D) <line>

75. Which attribute is used to specify the destination of a link?
A) src
B) name
C) href
D) link

76. Which tag is used to embed a webpage inside another webpage?
A) <frame>
B) <embed>
C) <iframe>
D) <link>

77. What is the use of the <abbr> tag in HTML?
A) Make text bold
B) Show abbreviation with tooltip
C) Create anchor link
D) Insert article

78. The default target of a hyperlink opens in:
A) New window
B) Same window
C) New tab
D) Frame

79. Which HTML element is used to define a footer for a document or section?
A) <bottom>
B) <foot>
C) <footer>
D) <end>

80. Which input type is used for selecting multiple values?
A) radio
B) checkbox
C) text
D) select

81. Which element is used to define the main content of a document?
A) <body>
B) <article>
C) <main>
D) <section>

82. Which tag is used to add controls like play, pause, and volume to audio in HTML5?
A) <mp3 controls>
B) <audio controls>
C) <media>
D) <sound>

83. Which tag specifies a header for a document or section?
A) <top>
B) <header>
C) <title>
D) <section>

84. What is the correct HTML for making a checkbox?
A) <input type="check">
**B) <input type="checkbox"> ** C) D)`

85. Which tag is used to define a client-side script (like JavaScript)?
A) <js>
B) <script>
C) <style>
D) <code>

86. What does the autoplay attribute do in HTML5 media tags?
A) Repeats the video
B) Hides the media
C) Starts playing automatically
D) Disables controls

87. Which tag is used to specify the source of a video or audio file?
A) <link>
B) <source>
C) <src>
D) <embed>

88. Which tag is used to show computer code in HTML?
A) <script>
B) <pre>
C) <code>
D) <keyboard>

89. Which tag is used to define keyboard input in HTML?
A) <input>
B) <kbd>
C) <key>
D) <button>

90. The <pre> tag is used to:
A) Add header
B) Display preformatted text
C) Add background
D) Display preview

Know More About Us

CSS

1. How can we change the background color of an element?
A) background-color
B) color
C) Both A and B
D) None of these

2. Which is the correct CSS syntax?
A) body: color = black;
B) body {color: black;}
C) {body: color : black;}
D) {body : color = black;}

3. How can we select an element with a specific ID in CSS?
A) #
B) .
C) !
D) None of these

4. How can we select an element with a specific Class in CSS?
A) #
B) .
C) !
D) None of these

5. Can negative values be allowed in padding property?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Depends on property
D) None of these

6. The CSS property used to specify the transparency of an element is?
A) opacity
B) visibility
C) filter
D) None of these

7. How can we specify the spacing between each letter in a text in CSS?
A) alpha-spacing
B) letter-spacing
C) character-spacing
D) None of these

8. We can make rounded borders around element using which CSS element?
A) border-collapse
B) border-round
C) border-radius
D) None of these

9. Which of the following property specifies the look and design of an outline?
A) outline-style
B) outline
C) outline-font
D) None of these

10. Which of the following are valid CSS position property values?
A) static
B) relative
C) fixed
D) All of these

11. Which of the following CSS property is used to controlling the layout?
A) display
B) color
C) text
D) None of these

12. Which of the following CSS property specifies the origin of the background image?
A) background-origin
B) background-size
C) origin
D) None of these

13. How are custom fonts defined using CSS?
A) @font-face rule
B) Custom fonts cannot be defined
C) src tags
D) None of these

14. Which of the following are parts of the CSS box model?
A) Margins
B) Borders
C) Padding
D) All of these

15. Which of the following components of the CSS box model are transparent?
A) Padding
B) Margin
C) Both A and B
D) Content

16. Which of the following can be achieved with CSS lists?
A) Set different list item markers for ordered lists
B) Set different list item markers for unordered lists
C) Set an image as the list item marker
D) All of these

17. Which of the following CSS property specifies the type of list item marker?
A) list
B) list-style-type
C) ul
D) ol

18. What value should be passed to the width parameter if we want an element, say a table, to span the entire width of the screen?
A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 0%
D) None of these

19. Which of the following properties is used to align text in CSS?
A) text-align
B) text-alignment
C) text
D) text-position

20. Which of the following is the correct approach to make a table responsive?
A) overflow-x: auto
B) overflow-x: none
C) Both A and B
D) None of these

21. Which of the following CSS properties specifies the stack order of elements?
A) z-index
B) overlap
C) No such specific properties is present
D) None of these

22. What are the uses of CSS pseudo-elements?
A) Style specified parts of an element
B) Style the first letter or line of an element
C) Insert content before or after the element
D) All of the above

23. How can we select elements with a specified attribute in CSS?
A) [attribute] selector
B) [property] selector
C) Both A and B
D) None of these

24. Which of the following are types of length units in CSS?
A) Absolute
B) Relative
C) Both A and B
D) None of these

25. What parameter does the calc() function in CSS take?
A) A sentence
B) A mathematical expression
C) A number
D) None of these

26. How can we add more importance to a property/value than normal?
A) !important
B) important
C) bold
D) None of these

27. Which CSS property specifies the painting area of the background?
A) background-size
B) background-clip
C) background-image
D) None of these

28. What are the different types of gradients in CSS?
A) Linear Gradients
B) Conic Gradients
C) Radial Gradients
D) All of these

29. Which CSS property is used to create an image reflection?
A) box-reflect
B) image-reflect
C) reflect-img
D) None of these

30. The transparent keyword is equivalent to which RGBA() value in CSS?
A) RGBA(0, 0, 0, 1)
B) RGBA(255, 255, 255, 1)
C) RGBA(0, 0, 0, 0)
D) RGBA(255, 255, 255, 0)

31. What function is used to insert values of a CSS variable?
A) var()
B) rand()
C) varchar()
D) calc()

32. What is the general syntax of writing the var() function?
A) var(–name, value)
B) var(–name)
C) var(value)
D) None of these

33. The CSS property used to control the element’s font size is –
A) text-style
B) text-size
C) font-size
D) None of these

34. The HTML attribute used to define the internal stylesheet is –
A)
B) style
C)
D)

35. Which of the following is the correct syntax to make the background-color of all paragraph elements to yellow?
A) p {background-color : yellow;}
B) p {background-color : #yellow;}
C) all {background-color : yellow;}
D) all p {background-color : #yellow;}

36. Which property is used to set the spacing between words in a paragraph?
A) word-spacing
B) letter-spacing
C) word-break
D) text-align

37. Which property is used to make the text bold in CSS?
A) text-style
B) font-style
C) font-weight
D) font-size

38. Which of the following properties is used to add shadow to text in CSS?
A) text-shadow
B) box-shadow
C) shadow
D) None of these

39. What does the z-index property do in CSS?
A) It controls the font size
B) It controls the stacking order of elements
C) It controls the width of an element
D) It controls the background image

40. Which of the following values can be used to set the display property to make an element not displayed on a webpage?
A) none
B) hidden
C) block
D) inline

41. Which of the following CSS properties is used to change the background image of an element?
A) background-image
B) background-style
C) background-color
D) None of these

42. Which property is used to control the transparency of an element in CSS?
A) opacity
B) visibility
C) transparency
D) z-index

43. Which CSS property is used to change the font of an element?
A) font-family
B) text-family
C) font-style
D) None of these

44. Which property is used to make the element’s content visible or hidden in CSS?
A) visibility
B) display
C) opacity
D) visibility:hidden

45. How can we apply multiple CSS rules for the same element?
A) Use semicolons
B) Use commas
C) Use multiple selectors
D) Use parentheses

46. What is the default value of the position property in CSS?
A) relative
B) static
C) absolute
D) fixed

47. Which of the following CSS properties can be used to set a border around an element?
A) border-style
B) border-width
C) border-color
D) All of these

48. Which of the following properties is used to control the size of an element’s border?
A) border-style
B) border-width
C) border-color
D) None of these

49. Which of the following is the correct way to add a comment in CSS?
A) // This is a comment
B) / This is a comment /
C) # This is a comment
D) <!– This is a comment –>

50. Which CSS property is used to control the layout?
A) display
B) color
C) text
D) None of these

51. Which property specifies the origin of the background image?
A) background-origin
B) background-size
C) origin
D) None of these

52. How are custom fonts defined using CSS?
A) @font-face rule
B) Custom fonts cannot be defined
C) src tags
D) None of these

53. Which of the following are parts of the CSS box model?
A) Margins
B) Borders
C) Padding
D) All of these

54. Which of the following components of the CSS box model are transparent?
A) Padding
B) Margin
C) Both A and B
D) Content

55. Which of the following can be achieved with CSS lists?
A) Set different list item markers for ordered lists
B) Set different list item markers for unordered lists
C) Set an image as the list item marker
D) All of these

56. Which of the following CSS property specifies the type of list item marker?
A) list
B) list-style-type
C) ul
D) ol

57. What value should be passed to the width parameter if we want an element, say a table, to span the entire width of the screen?
A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 0%
D) None of these

58. Which of the following properties is used to align text in CSS?
A) text-align
B) text-alignment
C) text
D) text-position

59. Which of the following is the correct approach to make a table responsive?
A) overflow-x: auto
B) overflow-x: none
C) Both A and B
D) None of these

60. Which of the following CSS properties specifies the stack order of elements?
A) z-index
B) overlap
C) No such specific properties is present
D) None of these

61. What are the uses of CSS pseudo-elements?
A) Style specified parts of an element
B) Style the first letter or line of an element
C) Insert content before or after the element
D) All of the above

62. How can we select elements with a specified attribute in CSS?
A) [attribute] selector
B) [property] selector
C) Both A and B
D) None of these

63. Which of the following are types of length units in CSS?
A) Absolute
B) Relative
C) Both A and B
D) None of these

64. What parameter does the calc() function in CSS take?
A) A sentence
B) A mathematical expression
C) A number
D) None of these

65. How can we add more importance to a property/value than normal?
A) !important
B) important
C) bold
D) None of these

66. Which CSS property specifies the painting area of the background?
A) background-size
B) background-clip
C) background-image
D) None of these

67. What are the different types of gradients in CSS?
A) Linear Gradients
B) Conic Gradients
C) Radial Gradients
D) All of these

68. Which CSS property is used to create an image reflection?
A) box-reflect
B) image-reflect
C) reflect-img
D) None of these

69. The transparent keyword is equivalent to which RGBA() value in CSS?
A) RGBA(0, 0, 0, 1)
B) RGBA(255, 255, 255, 1)
C) RGBA(0, 0, 0, 0)
D) RGBA(255, 255, 255, 0)

70. What function is used to insert values of a CSS variable?
A) var()
B) rand()
C) varchar()
D) calc()

71. What is the general syntax of writing the var() function?
A) var(–name, value)
B) var(–name)
C) var(value)
D) None of these

72. The CSS property used to control the element’s font size is –
A) text-style
B) text-size
C) font-size
D) None of these

73. The HTML attribute used to define the internal stylesheet is –
A)
B) style
C)
D)

74. Which of the following is the correct syntax to make the background-color of all paragraph elements to yellow?
A) p {background-color : yellow;}
B) p {background-color : #yellow;}
C) all {background-color : yellow;}
D) all p {background-color : #yellow;}

75. What does the transition property in CSS do?
A) Defines background effects
B) Enables smooth change from one style to another
C) Changes text font
D) Hides an element

76. Which value of display removes an element from the page layout?
A) none
B) hidden
C) invisible
D) collapse

77. What is the default display value of a tag?
A) inline
B) block
C) flex
D) inline-block

78. Which pseudo-class selects when a user hovers over an element?
A) hovering
B) :hover
C) :focus
D) :target

79. How do you apply styles to a specific ID in CSS?
A) .idname
B) #idname
C) id:idname
D) *idname

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JavaScript

1. NaN stands for_________.
a) Nano
b) NanTech
c) Not a number
d) New attacted Nematic

2. ++ operator in JavaScript is ____ Operator.
a) Unary
b) Positive
c) Increment
d) Addition

3. A translator is described as ________ software.
a) Application
b) System
c) Utility
d) Open Source

4. BOM stands for______ .
a) Browser Object Model
b) Browser Opening Model
c) Brown Object Model
d) Browser Object Mission

5. What is the process of writing instruction to be executed by the computer?
a) Debugging
b) Executing
c) Presenting
d) Programming

6. Which is a statement terminator in JavaScript?
a) ,
b) ;
c) :
d) . .

7. Which programming language’s syntax influences JavaScript syntax?
a) C
b) COBOL
c) Java
d) JDK

8. Which web server provides good customer support if it had any issues?
a) Apache
b) IIS
c) Lite speed
d) Nginx

9. Which key is used to declare a variable in JavaScript?
a) const
b) dec
c) dim
d) var

10. Which is a variable separator if more than one variable declared in one statement?
a) ,
b) :
c) –
d) /

11. Which brackets are used to write an array in JavaScript?
a) Curve bracket
b) Square bracket
c) Curly bracket
d) Corner bracket

12. Which bracket is used to write an object in JavaScript?
a) Curve bracket
b) Square bracket
c) Curly bracket
d) Corner bracket

13. How many types of operations are there in JavaScript?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

14. What is the purpose of the modulo (%) operator in JavaScript?
a) Percentage value
b) Product value
c) Remainder value
d) Quotient value

15. How many parts are there in a ‘For’ loop?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

16. Which part in a loop evaluates the conditions?
a) Condition part
b) Increment/Decrement part
c) Initialisation part
d) Looping part

17. How many types of errors are there in JavaScript programming?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

18. How many different values can be returned by the error name property in JavaScript?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

19. Which object method is used to return the value rounded down to its nearest integer?
a) abs()
b) ceil()
c) floor()
d) round()

20. Which special variable holds more than one value at a time?
a) Array
b) Element
c) Function
d) Object

21. Which is the parameter name separator in JavaScript?

a) ,
b) :
c) –
d) /

22. Which function in JavaScript converts a number to a string?
a) Num()
b) Str()
c) String()
d) toString()

23. Which allows developers to bundle all functionality under a unique application-specific name?
a) Class
b) Name space
c) Object
d) Property

24. Which is a valid JS code to sort elements of an array?
a) Trade.sort();
b) Trade.sort:
c) Sort.trade();
d) Sort.(trade);

25. What is the full form of TOC?
a) Text of content
b) Time of calculation
c) Table of content
d) Terminator of content

26. Which is the first phase of the System Development Life Cycle?
a) Testing
b) Planning
c) Developing
d) Defining

27. What is the abbreviation of W3C in DOM?
a) World Wide Web Consortium
b) World Wide Web Curriculum
c) World Wide Web Centre
d) World Wide Web Content

28. What is the main purpose of JavaScript?
a) Client-side validation
b) Create web browsers
c) Read and write files
d) Store data in the server

29. Which sign is used as an ‘assignment’ operator in JavaScript?
a) =
b) #
c) ==
d) <>

30. Which data type in JavaScript returns the value ‘True’ or ‘False’?
a) Boolean
b) Dynamic
c) Object
d) String

31. Which operator is used to check both value and type in JavaScript?
a) #
b) =
c) ==
d) ===

32. Which assignment operator is equivalent to a = a * 5?
a) a = 5 * 9
b) a = * 5
c) a = a * 5
d) a = 5

33. Which single-character escape sequence represents ‘line feed’ in JavaScript?
a) \b
b) \f
c) \n
d) \t

34. What is the purpose of the Initialization part in the ‘for’ loop?
a) Exit the loop
b) Evaluate the condition
c) Increase or decrease the initial variable
d) Initiate the variable

35. Which keyword in a switch case statement specifies the code to run if there is no case match?
a) Break
b) Case
c) Default
d) End

36. Which statement is used to test a block of code for errors?
a) Try
b) Catch
c) Throw
d) Finally

37. Which statement is used to handle the error?
a) Try
b) Catch
c) Throw
d) Finally

38. Which statement is used to create a custom error in JavaScript?
a) Catch
b) Finally
c) Throw
d) Try

39. Which statement is used to execute code after try and catch?
a) Finally
b) Syntax error
c) Throw
d) Type error

40. Which error indicates that the number is outside the range of legal values?
a) Range Error
b) Reference Error
c) Type Error
d) URI Error

41. Which error indicates that the variable used is not declared?
a) Eval Error
b) Reference Error
c) Range Error
d) Syntax Error

42. Which error indicates that the value is outside the range of the expected type?
a) Eval Error
b) Range Error
c) Syntax Error
d) Type Error

43. Which is used to access individual values in an array?
a) Content Number
b) Element Number
c) Table Number
d) Variable Number

44. What is the purpose of the length property in an array?
a) Returns the number of array elements
b) Returns the number of characters
c) Returns the number of fields in an object array
d) Returns the number of highest array index

45. Which method joins all array elements into a string with a specified separator?
a) Join()
b) Pop()
c) Push()
d) To string()

46. Which method removes the last element from an array?
a) Join()
b) Push()
c) Pop()
d) Shift()

47. Which method is used to add a new element to an array?
a) Join()
b) Push()
c) Pop()
d) Shift()

48. Which method removes the first array element?
a) Join()
b) Pop()
c) Push()
d) Shift()

49. Which variable works as a function argument in JavaScript?
a) Function variable
b) Global variable
c) Local variable
d) Object variable

50. Which variable is declared outside a function in JavaScript?
a) Function variable
b) Global variable
c) Local variable
d) Object variable

51. Which feature in JavaScript has properties and methods?
a) Array
b) Function
c) Object
d) Controls

52. Which variables are deleted in JavaScript when the page is closed?
a) Function variable
b) Global variable
c) Local variable
d) Object variable

53. Which method is called at the moment of instantiation of an object?
a) Constructor
b) Inheritance
c) Polymorphism
d) Property

54. Which is an instance of a class?
a) Class
b) Name space
c) Object
d) Property

55. Which window method is used to move the current window?
a) Move()
b) Move to()
c) Window move()
d) Window.moveTo()

56. Which property returns the width of the visitor’s screen in pixels?
a) Width()
b) Screen width()
c) Screen.width()
d) Width.screen()

57. Which property returns the URL of the current page?
a) href()
b) [blank]
c) Location.href
d) herf.location

58. Which open-source software is used to upload from client to server or download from server to client?
a) PHP
b) Perl
c) HTTP
d) FILEZILLA

59. How will JavaScript treat a number when it is enclosed with double or single quotes?
a) Error
b) Number
c) String
d) Zero

60. What will be the output for the following JavaScript code? var x = 13 + "03"; alert(x);
a) 16
b) 133
c) 1303
d) 13 03

61. What will be the output, if the JavaScript code is executed

var x = 1324;

var y = new Number(1324);

if( x === y) alert("Yes");

else alert("No")
a) Infinity
b) Error
c) No
d) Yes

62. What is the output of the following JavaScript code? var x = " ITI "; var y = " GOVT "; var o = y.concat(x); document.write(o);
a) GOVTITI
b) ITI GOVT
c) ITIGOVT
d) GOVT ITI

63. What is the output of the following JavaScript code? var name = "Kanya Kumari"; var x = name.substr(8,2); document.write(x);
a) ma
b) um
c) ar
d) Ku

64. ______ JavaScript is also called client-side JavaScript.
a) Microsoft
b) Navigator
c) LiveWire
d) Native

65. __________ JavaScript is also called server-side JavaScript.
a) Microsoft
b) Navigator
c) LiveWire
d) Native

66. Local Browser used for validations on the web pages uses______.
a) html
b) css
c) js
d) java

67. JavaScript code can be called by using _____.
a) Preprocessor
b) Function/Method
c) RMI
d) Triggering Event

68. Which was the first web browser to support JavaScript?
a) IE
b) Google Chrome
c) Netscape
d) Mozilla Firefox

69. Using _______ statement is how you test for a specific condition.
a) If
b) Select
c) Switch
d) For

70. Why JavaScript and Java have similar names?
a) JavaScript syntax is loosely based on Java’s
b) Java and JavaScript are the same
c) JavaScript and Java developed by the same company
d) JavaScript and Java invented by the same person

71. Inside which HTML element do we put JavaScript?
a)
b)
c)
d)

72. JavaScript entities start with_____ and end with _________.
a) comma, colon
b) colon, semicolon
c) ampersand, semicolon
d) semicolon, ampersand

73. JavaScript code is written inside files having extension _____.
a) .js
b) .jvs
c) .javaScript
d) .jsc

74. Who developed JavaScript?
a) Brendan Eich
b) Brendan Rich
c) John Eckerl
d) John Mauchy

75. Which one is responsible for running JavaScript code?
a) Browser
b) Notepad++
c) Sublime Text
d) Visual Studio Code

76. JavaScript is an _____ language.
a) interpreted
b) compiled

77. JavaScript is designed for the following purpose –
a) To perform server-side scripting operation
b) To execute queries related to DB on Server
c) To add interactivity to HTML Pages
d) To style HTML pages

78. Where is the correct place to insert JavaScript?
a) Both the <head> section and the <body> section are correct
b) The <head> section
c) The <body> section
d) None of these

79. Is JavaScript case-sensitive?
a) Yes
b) No

80. Which keyword is used to declare a variable in JavaScript?
a) set
b) var
c) let
d) define

81. What is the output of: typeof null in JavaScript?
a) null
b) undefined
c) object
d) boolean

82. Which function is used to parse a string to an integer in JavaScript?
a) parseStr()
b) int()
c) parseInt()
d) stringToInt()

83. What does isNaN() function do?
a) Returns true if the variable is not a name
b) Converts a number to NaN
c) Checks whether a value is NaN or not
d) None of the above

84. Which symbol is used for comments in JavaScript?
a) //
b) \
c) <!–
d) **

85. How can you create a function in JavaScript?
a) function:myFunction()
b) function myFunction()
c) create myFunction()
d) function = myFunction()

86. What will the following code return: Boolean(10 > 9)?
a) false
b) NaN
c) true
d) 0

87. What is the correct way to write a JavaScript array?
a) var colors = (1:"red", 2:"green", 3:"blue")
b) var colors = "red", "green", "blue"
c) var colors = ["red", "green", "blue"]
d) var colors = 1 = ("red"), 2 = ("green"), 3 = ("blue")

88. What is the result of typeof [] in JavaScript?
a) array
b) object array
c) list
d) object

89. What is the output of typeof undefined?
a) null
b) undefined
c) object
d) NaN

90. Which built-in method returns the characters in a string beginning at the specified location?
a) substr()
b) getChars()
c) sliceChar()
d) charAt()

91. Which method converts JSON data to a JavaScript object?
a) JSON.convert()
b) JSON.parse()
c) JSON.stringify()
d) JSON.objectify()

92. Which method converts a JavaScript object to a JSON string?
a) JSON.convert()
b) JSON.objectify()
c) JSON.stringify()
d) JSON.parse()

93. What is the correct syntax for a JavaScript for loop?
a) for (i <= 5; i++)
b) for i = 1 to 5
c) for (i = 0; i <= 5)
d) for (var i = 0; i <= 5; i++)

94. Which function is used to execute code at specified intervals?
a) setInterval()
b) setTime()
c) intervalLoop()
d) timeInterval()

95. What is the scope of a variable declared with let?
a) Global
b) Function
c) Block
d) Module

96. What is the output of "5" + 3 in JavaScript?
a) 8
b) “53”
c) 2
d) Error

97. What is the output of "5" - 3 in JavaScript?
a) “2”
b) Error
c) “53”
d) 2

98. What keyword stops the execution of a loop?
a) stop
b) skip
c) break
d) exit

99. Which method is used to search a string for a specified value?
a) search()
b) lookFor()
c) find()
d) match()

100. How do you declare a constant in JavaScript?
a) const = pi
b) constant pi = 3.14
c) const pi = 3.14
d) let constant = pi

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E-commerce

1. What is the full form of EDI?
A) Electronic Data Interchange
B) Electronic Direct Interchange
C) Electronic Data Information
D) Electronic Data Interconnection

2. What is the abbreviation of CGI?
A) Computer Gateway Interface
B) Common Gateway Interface
C) Computer Gateway Interconnection
D) Common Gateway Interconnection

3. Which type of E-Commerce is payment Gateway?
A) B2B
B) B2C
C) G2C
D) G2B

4. Which type of E-Commerce is tenders and submission of application?
A) B2B
B) B2C
C) G2C
D) G2B

5. Which type of E-Commerce is Amazon?
A) B2B
B) B2C
C) G2B
D) G2C

6. What is the full form of ATM?
A) Any Time Money
B) Automated Transaction Management
C) Automated Teller Machine
D) None of them

7. What is called sale or purchase of items without physically visiting a shop?
A) E-Commerce
B) POS
C) Traditional Commerce
D) E-Service

8. Which scope of E-Commerce business platforms like Amazon, eBay, etc?
A) National
B) Local
C) Global
D) Virtual

9. What is the full form of COD in E-Commerce?
A) Cash on Delivery
B) Cash on Demand
C) Commerce on Delivery
D) Cart on Delivery

10. Which one is an E-Commerce site?
A) Yahoo
B) Bing
C) Google
D) Amazon

11. Which one is an online payment?
A) Flipkart
B) Paytm
C) Gmail
D) Reliance Jio

12. Which type of attack is a method of defeating a cryptographic scheme by trying a large number of possibilities?
A) Teardrop attack
B) Brute force attack
C) Phlashing
D) Smurf attack

13. Which is the model in E-Commerce, if the seller and buyer are both business firms?
A) Consumer to Business
B) Business to Consumer
C) Business to Business
D) Consumer to Consumer

14. Which is the model in E-Commerce, if the seller is a business and the individual is a consumer?
A) Consumer to Business
B) Business to Consumer
C) Business to Business
D) Consumer to Consumer

15. Which is the model in E-Commerce, if the seller is an individual and the buyer is a business firm?
A) Consumer to Business
B) Business to Consumer
C) Business to Business
D) Consumer to Consumer

16. Which is the model in E-Commerce, if the seller and the buyer are both individuals?
A) Consumer to Business
B) Business to Consumer
C) Business to Business
D) Consumer to Consumer

17. Which option in E-Commerce helps to keep selected products until checkout/payment?
A) Basket
B) Cart
C) Tray
D) COD

18. Which is the function of specifying access rights to resources related to information security?
A) OTP
B) PIN
C) Authorization
D) Passcode

19. Which refers to paying the money back to the buyer after the price has been deducted from the account?
A) Refund
B) Return
C) Deduction
D) Chargeback

20. Which card permits online payment using balance amount available in the bank account?
A) Credit card
B) PayPal
C) Debit card
D) Wallet

21. Which is the set of rules that limits access to information?
A) Availability
B) Integrity
C) Authenticity
D) Confidentiality

22. Which is the process of ensuring the data, transactions, communication, or documents are genuine?
A) Availability
B) Integrity
C) Authenticity
D) Confidentiality

23. What is the purpose of the OLX website?
A) Uploading Files
B) Buying and selling products
C) Searching Documents
D) Recovering files

24. Which of the following authenticates and handles credit card payment for E-Commerce?
A) Payment gateway
B) E-Commerce gateway
C) Software gateway
D) E-Wallets

25. What is another name for PDoS?
A) Brute force attack
B) Non-technical attack
C) Phlashing
D) Smurf attack

26. Example of an online marketplace is ________.
A) eBay
B) Snapdeal
C) Flipkart
D) All of them

27. Which one is not a cyber security threat?
A) Virus
B) Hacking
C) Firewalls
D) Phishing

28. Which is an example of a cyber crime?
A) Online Shopping
B) Sending Emails
C) Phishing
D) Video Calling

29. Which is a strong password example?
A) password123
B) 12345678
C) P@ssw0rd#2025
D) qwerty

30. What is the purpose of antivirus software?
A) Speed up internet
B) Detect and remove malware
C) Design websites
D) Backup files

31. Which of the following is a cyber attack?
A) Data Encryption
B) Denial of Service (DoS)
C) Software Installation
D) Creating a Folder

32. What does SSL stand for in E-Commerce?
A) Secure Software Login
B) System Security Layer
C) Secure Sockets Layer
D) Secure Server Link

33. Which tool helps protect a computer from unauthorized access?
A) Scanner
B) Printer
C) Firewall
D) Monitor

34. Which of the following is used for secure online communication?
A) HTTP
B) FTP
C) HTTPS
D) WWW

35. Which of the following is a form of cyberbullying?
A) Sending money online
B) Sending threatening messages
C) Online banking
D) Cloud storage

36. Which component of cyber security ensures information is not altered?
A) Availability
B) Integrity
C) Confidentiality
D) Accessibility

37. Which is the process of converting data into a coded form?
A) Compression
B) Encryption
C) Formatting
D) Scanning

38. Which of the following is an example of identity theft?
A) Using your own ID online
B) Using someone else’s personal details without permission
C) Creating a Facebook account
D) Saving passwords

39. Which file extension usually indicates a virus or malware?
A) .docx
B) .jpg
C) .exe
D) .html

40. Which is a safe practice for online banking?
A) Using public Wi-Fi
B) Sharing passwords
C) Clicking unknown links
D) Logging out after use

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Cyber Security

1. What is the full form of LDAP?
A) Light Weight Directory Access Provider
B) Light Weight Directory Access Protocol
C) Light Weight Directory Access Program
D) Light Weight Directory Access Protection

2. What is called the collective term for malicious software, such as viruses, worms, and trojans?
A) Spam
B) Phishing
C) Malware
D) Harm

3. What is the full form of CIA under information security?
A) Confidentiality Integrity Availability
B) Criminal Investigation Agency
C) Cost Information Agency
D) Credit Integrity Assessment

4. What is called a single point of access for several networking services?
A) Phishing
B) Web service
C) Directory service
D) Worms

5. Which activities endanger the sovereignty and integrity of the nation?
A) Cyber Terrorism
B) Cyber vandalism
C) Cyber squatting
D) Carding

6. Which crime involves the use of computer networks to create, distribute, or access materials that sexually exploit underage persons?
A) Assault by Threat
B) Cyber squatting
C) Cyber vandalism
D) Child pornography

7. Which method goes through all the files or network elements with the intention to detect something unusual?
A) Probing
B) Phishing
C) Infecting
D) Scanning

8. Victims of a cyber attack might lose ______.
A) Data
B) Money
C) Both A & B
D) None of them

9. Under information security, CIA stands for ______.
A) Criminal Investigation Agency
B) Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
C) Cost Information Agency
D) Credit Integrity Assessment

10. Script files sent mostly through email attachment to attack the host computer are called ______.
A) Worms
B) Phishing attacks
C) Trojans
D) Computer Viruses

11. What is called the protection of information and data from unauthorized access?
A) Physical security
B) Link security
C) Risk management
D) Information security

12. Which of the following shows the need for cyber security?
a) Protection from hackers
b) Internet scams
c) Viruses
d) All of the above

13. The first computer virus is_____
a) Creeper
b) Rat virus
c) Worm
d) Blaster

14. Trojan horses are very similar to viruses in the programs that replicate copies of themselves.
a) True
b) False

15. Maintaining computers free from cyber attacks is called ______.
a) Cyber attack
b) Risk management
c) Online fraud
d) Phishing

16. When did the Indian parliament pass the IT Act?
A) 1990
B) 1992
C) 2000
D) 2005

17. What is called protecting data from online attacks, deletions, malwares?
A) Physical security
B) Cyber security
C) Cyber attack
D) Virus

18. Cyber security is also called _______ security?
a) Criminal
b) Information Technology
c) National
d) International

19. Which of the following is an anti-virus program?
a) Norton
b) K7
c) Quick Heal
d) All of these

20. ______ monitors user activity on the internet and transmits that information in the background to someone else.
a) Malware
b) Spyware
c) Adware
d) None of these

21. Passwords are used to improve the _______ of a network.
a) Performance
b) Reliability
c) Security
d) Longevity

22. Where might a spammer get your personal information from?
a) Facebook
b) MySpace
c) LinkedIn
d) All of these

23. What is the primary goal of encryption?
A) Data storage
B) Data confidentiality
C) Data compression
D) Data integrity

24. Which type of attack involves attempting to overload a system or network with excessive traffic to make it unavailable?
A) Denial of Service (DoS)
B) Man-in-the-middle
C) Phishing
D) SQL injection

25. Which protocol is used for secure communication over the internet?
A) HTTP
B) FTP
C) HTTPS
D) SMTP

26. What is the process of attempting to guess a password by trying many different possibilities in quick succession called?
A) Phishing
B) Social engineering
C) Brute force attack
D) Spoofing

27. What does VPN stand for?
A) Virtual Private Network
B) Virtual Protected Network
C) Verified Private Network
D) Validated Protocol Network

28. Which is a type of malware that replicates itself and spreads to other computers?
A) Virus
B) Spyware
C) Trojan
D) Worm

29. Which of the following is a form of social engineering attack?
A) SQL injection
B) Phishing
C) Man-in-the-middle
D) Cross-site scripting (XSS)

30. What does the term “patch management” refer to?
A) Fixing physical vulnerabilities in hardware
B) Installing updates to fix security flaws
C) Enhancing software features
D) Deleting outdated software

31. Which of the following is a common method of authentication used in computer security?
A) Password
B) CAPTCHA
C) IP address
D) File encryption

32. Which of the following is NOT a type of malware?
A) Virus
B) Spyware
C) Trojan
D) Worm

33. What is the main function of a firewall?
A) To block unauthorized access to a network
B) To encrypt sensitive data
C) To monitor internet traffic
D) To authenticate users

34. What is a honeypot in cybersecurity?
A) A type of virus
B) A tool to steal information
C) A system designed to lure and trap attackers
D) A tool to encrypt data

35. What is the purpose of two-factor authentication (2FA)?
A) To increase the speed of login
B) To reduce network traffic
C) To enhance security by requiring two forms of identification
D) To make passwords stronger

36. Which of the following refers to the act of disguising a communication or document to deceive someone into believing it is from a trusted source?
A) Phishing
B) Spoofing
C) Spamming
D) Sniffing

37. What does the term “zero-day vulnerability” refer to?
A) A new malware
B) A vulnerability that is being exploited on the same day it is discovered
C) A type of encryption flaw
D) A software vulnerability that has been fixed

38. Which type of attack involves redirecting a legitimate website’s traffic to a fake one to steal information?
A) Pharming
B) Phishing
C) Denial of Service (DoS)
D) SQL Injection

39. What does the term “data breach” refer to?
A) A sudden loss of power to a computer
B) Unauthorized access to confidential data
C) A user forgetting their password
D) A decrease in internet speed

40. Which of the following is considered a type of spyware?
A) Trojan
B) Keylogger
C) Worm
D) Virus

41. What is the primary purpose of SSL certificates?
A) To monitor network traffic
B) To secure data exchanged between a website and a browser
C) To increase website loading speed
D) To provide website analytics

42. Which type of attack is characterized by intercepting and altering communication between two parties without their knowledge?
A) Man-in-the-middle attack
B) Phishing
C) SQL Injection
D) Ransomware

43. Which of the following tools can be used to analyze network traffic for malicious activity?
A) Antivirus
B) Wireshark
C) VPN
D) Firewall

44. Which of the following is the primary objective of ransomware attacks?
A) To steal personal information
B) To destroy data
C) To encrypt data and demand ransom for decryption
D) To block network traffic

45. What does the term “social engineering” refer to in cybersecurity?
A) Attacking network infrastructure
B) Manipulating people into disclosing confidential information
C) Disrupting a website’s services
D) Creating malicious software

46. Which of the following is the most secure method for storing passwords?
A) Writing them down on paper
B) Using a password manager
C) Storing them in an unencrypted text file
D) Sharing them via email

47. What is the first step in responding to a cybersecurity incident?
A) Contain the threat
B) Analyze the data breach
C) Report the incident to authorities
D) Remove the affected systems

48. Which of the following is a characteristic of a brute-force attack?
A) It attempts to decrypt a file
B) It tries every possible password until it finds the correct one
C) It manipulates network traffic
D) It exploits a system’s software vulnerability

49. Which type of attack tries to overload a network by sending excessive traffic to make it unavailable?
A) Denial of Service (DoS) attack
B) Phishing
C) Keylogging
D) SQL Injection

50. What is the term used for a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic?
A) Firewall
B) Antivirus
C) VPN
D) IDS (Intrusion Detection System)

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